## Question

In binomial likelihood function why is number of trials equal to 1

On page 123 of the book it states: "We will apply the Likelihood function to each and every instance in the dataset separately. Therefore n

= 1."

I need help understanding why this is so.

## Answers and follow-up questions

** Answer or follow-up question 1**Dear student,

I'm not sure I understand your question. If one applies the likelihood function to 1 instance, then n=1. We apply it to each instance

separately and then multiply them (Eq 2.17).

If you need more explanations, please elaborate your question.

Best,

Michel Ballings

** Answer or follow-up question 2** Thanks, you're right. I did not read the text correctly.

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