In binomial likelihood function why is number of trials equal to 1 On page 123 of the book it states: "We will apply the Likelihood function to each and every instance in the dataset separately. Therefore n
I need help understanding why this is so.
Answers and follow-up questions Answer or follow-up question 1
I'm not sure I understand your question. If one applies the likelihood function to 1 instance, then n=1. We apply it to each instance
separately and then multiply them (Eq 2.17).
If you need more explanations, please elaborate your question.
Michel Ballings Answer or follow-up question 2
Thanks, you're right. I did not read the text correctly.Sign in to be able to add an answer or mark this question as resolved.